(no subject)
Jul. 15th, 2005 06:31 amAssume a = b therefore a - b = 0 additionally 2a - 2b = 0 therefore a - b = 2a - 2b, or 1(a - b) = 2(a - b)
Now if we factor out the (a - b) from this equation...
1 1 1(a - b)= 2(a - b)-----------------(a - b)1 Ergo 1 = 2
Most people spot the fallacy right away, but it's surprising how many people I've caught with this one.
no subject
Date: 2005-07-15 02:47 pm (UTC)And second of all, this equation is undefined as you cannot divide by zero
:P
no subject
Date: 2005-07-15 03:10 pm (UTC)Where did I claim that a - b = 1?
no subject
Date: 2005-07-15 03:31 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2005-07-15 03:35 pm (UTC)no subject
Date: 2005-07-15 03:45 pm (UTC)In that case, my first comment should read as follows:
First off, a - b = 0, not 1.And second of all,this equation is undefined as you cannot divide by zero:P
no subject
Date: 2005-07-15 03:48 pm (UTC)Puh. Certainly you can divide by zero. A real-life example is when there are two slices of pizza left, and we're trying to decide which slice is yours... unless you go all spastic and lick your hands and paw the pieces before we can come to an equitable division I mean, then things get a bit undefined again.
no subject
Date: 2005-07-15 04:09 pm (UTC)Your saliva tastes good.
no subject
Date: 2005-07-16 05:33 am (UTC)